[R] A question regarding R scoping
Duncan Murdoch
murdoch at stats.uwo.ca
Fri Aug 7 02:48:37 CEST 2009
Ivo Shterev wrote:
> Hi,
>
> Perhaps I have to rephrase a bit my question. If we have the following:
>
> i = 10
> f1 = function(i){
> i <<- 1
> }
>
> after calling f1, the value of i becomes 1. Now, suppose that f1 is called in another function f2, and i is initialized in f2 as well, i.e:
>
> f2 = function(n){
> i = n
> f1(i)
> }
>
> The intention is, after executing f2, i=1 (not i=n).
>
That is what you get. What is the question?
Duncan Murdoch
>
>
>
> --- On Thu, 8/6/09, Steve Lianoglou <mailinglist.honeypot at gmail.com> wrote:
>
>
>> From: Steve Lianoglou <mailinglist.honeypot at gmail.com>
>> Subject: Re: [R] A question regarding R scoping
>> To: "Ivo Shterev" <idc318 at yahoo.com>
>> Cc: r-help at r-project.org
>> Date: Thursday, August 6, 2009, 10:23 PM
>> Howdy,
>>
>> On Aug 6, 2009, at 4:11 PM, Ivo Shterev wrote:
>>
>>
>>> Hi,
>>>
>>> The intention is that after executing f2, the value of
>>>
>> i to become 1.
>>
>>> f1 = function(i){i = 1}
>>>
>>> f2 = function(n){ i = length(n)
>>> f1(i)
>>> print(i)}
>>>
>>> i.e. f2 should print 1, not length(n).
>>>
>> Yeah, you can using parent.frame()'s and such:
>>
>> f1 <- function(i) assign('i', 10, envir=parent.frame())
>> f2 <- function(n) {
>> i <- length(n)
>> f1(i)
>> print(i)
>> }
>>
>> R> f2(1:20)
>> [1] 10
>>
>> Honestly, this just smells like a *really* bad idea, though
>> ... just have f1() return a value that you use in f2.
>>
>> -steve
>>
>> --
>> Steve Lianoglou
>> Graduate Student: Computational Systems Biology
>> | Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center
>> | Weill Medical College of Cornell University
>> Contact Info: http://cbio.mskcc.org/~lianos/contact
>>
>>
>>
>
>
>
>
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