[R] A question regarding R scoping
Erik Iverson
eiverson at NMDP.ORG
Thu Aug 6 22:22:54 CEST 2009
So is your question:
Can you/how do you pass variables by reference in R? I do not know the answer, but I do think that is what you're getting at, yes?
-----Original Message-----
From: r-help-bounces at r-project.org [mailto:r-help-bounces at r-project.org] On Behalf Of Ivo Shterev
Sent: Thursday, August 06, 2009 3:11 PM
To: Steve Lianoglou
Cc: r-help at r-project.org
Subject: Re: [R] A question regarding R scoping
Hi,
The intention is that after executing f2, the value of i to become 1.
f1 = function(i){i = 1}
f2 = function(n){ i = length(n)
f1(i)
print(i)}
i.e. f2 should print 1, not length(n).
ivo
--- On Thu, 8/6/09, Steve Lianoglou <mailinglist.honeypot at gmail.com> wrote:
> From: Steve Lianoglou <mailinglist.honeypot at gmail.com>
> Subject: Re: [R] A question regarding R scoping
> To: "Ivo Shterev" <idc318 at yahoo.com>
> Cc: r-help at r-project.org
> Date: Thursday, August 6, 2009, 3:07 AM
> Hi,
>
> On Aug 5, 2009, at 5:55 PM, Ivo Shterev wrote:
>
> > I have a question related to scoping. Suppose we have
> 2 functions:
> >
> > f1 = function(i){i = 1}
> >
> > f2 = function(n){
> > i = length(n)
> > f1(i)
> > }
> >
> > In other words, I would like i=1 regardless of n. Is
> this possible without having f1 in the body of f2? Thanks in
> advance!
>
> Uhm ... what? You want i = 1 where, exactly? You want to
> call to f1(i) to set i to 1 in f2?
>
> Sorry, I don't really follow. Can you be a bit more
> explicit?
>
> -steve
>
> --
> Steve Lianoglou
> Graduate Student: Computational Systems Biology
> | Memorial Sloan-Kettering Cancer Center
> | Weill Medical College of Cornell University
> Contact Info: http://cbio.mskcc.org/~lianos/contact
>
>
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